The question we are trying to ascertain the answer to is this: Is it possible that a diabetic person in Hypoglycaemic state could be given first Glucagon (IM), which is unreactive because the person has no stores of glycogen to release, and then Glucose (IV), which is also unsuccessful due to there not being sufficient insulin in the bloodstream either? Is this a realistic scenario?
If not why not?
Thankyou!
Glenn Austin (Student paramedic)




