Tuesday, August 21, 2007
Thank you in advance for taking the time to answer my questions.
I am a 38 year old married male. My wife has been monogamous for the 18 years of our marriage and we have 4 children all born in the 90's. About 9 months ago she had the symptoms of an initial primary outbreak and was confirmed to have both HSV 1&2 (culture tests). She has endured outbreaks about every 6 weeks, each time lessening in severity. She is coping and doing well. She is likely to get on suppression therapy starting next month.
It was assumed that I must be the source of her virus since I had an extramarital encounter (s) a few weeks prior. Certain I was the source, I was tested at 2 weeks with Herpes Select / Type Specific test. I registered Negative but assumed it was due to the lack of sufficient time to produce anti-bodies. Despite having no symptoms, I was retested again at 6, 12, 16 and 20 weeks - all remain negative. I have no symptoms, and have 5 negative exams.
So, here is my question. Our doctors are providing us with conflicting answers. My physician says I simply CANT be the source of her infection - claims its simply impossible statistically. He suggests that either 1). she was likely unfaithful herself or 2). she has carried this virus asleep in her system for almost 20 years and cites example from Ashta and others where this has been documented. Rare yes, but possible he proclaims. On the other hand, Her doctor says there are people who simply never show anti-bodies or show them as late as years in the future and that it is "me" (not her) who is the statistical anomaly.
Help Should I keep getting tested?
Should I assume I am HSV free and practice the appropriate safe-sex w/my wife?
The blame game is not what is at work here. I simply want to know if I have HSV or not so we can adjust our sex life accordingly. We are deeply in love and all forgiveness is in place. We simply want to know so we can set our practices and expectations correctly.
6 months and 5 tests!! Can I assume I am HSV free?
Thank you again for your time and your help.
I am a 38 year old married male. My wife has been monogamous for the 18 years of our marriage and we have 4 children all born in the 90's. About 9 months ago she had the symptoms of an initial primary outbreak and was confirmed to have both HSV 1&2 (culture tests). She has endured outbreaks about every 6 weeks, each time lessening in severity. She is coping and doing well. She is likely to get on suppression therapy starting next month.
It was assumed that I must be the source of her virus since I had an extramarital encounter (s) a few weeks prior. Certain I was the source, I was tested at 2 weeks with Herpes Select / Type Specific test. I registered Negative but assumed it was due to the lack of sufficient time to produce anti-bodies. Despite having no symptoms, I was retested again at 6, 12, 16 and 20 weeks - all remain negative. I have no symptoms, and have 5 negative exams.
So, here is my question. Our doctors are providing us with conflicting answers. My physician says I simply CANT be the source of her infection - claims its simply impossible statistically. He suggests that either 1). she was likely unfaithful herself or 2). she has carried this virus asleep in her system for almost 20 years and cites example from Ashta and others where this has been documented. Rare yes, but possible he proclaims. On the other hand, Her doctor says there are people who simply never show anti-bodies or show them as late as years in the future and that it is "me" (not her) who is the statistical anomaly.
Help Should I keep getting tested?
Should I assume I am HSV free and practice the appropriate safe-sex w/my wife?
The blame game is not what is at work here. I simply want to know if I have HSV or not so we can adjust our sex life accordingly. We are deeply in love and all forgiveness is in place. We simply want to know so we can set our practices and expectations correctly.
6 months and 5 tests!! Can I assume I am HSV free?
Thank you again for your time and your help.
