I (male) don't have herpes 2 but my girlfriend does. Since the Herpes 2 virus does not penetrate unbroken skin and enters through membranes, how is it that a male can still contract the virus from a shedding female. Assuming he uses a condom and it doesn't break, and that he has no broken skin anywhere. Does it enter through the scrotum skin by rubbing? Is that skin not as good a protector as say my finger skin? I can see how the condom is ineffective to a female since it may not cover the infected area of the male, but why is it not very effective to the male since it covers the only membrane down there?
Thanks in advance
for your time