I had an outbreak during pregnancy. I was 9 months along & I had not had sex in 5 months. They delivered my son through caesarian, but since I had this outbreak I have had no signs & symptoms in the past 5 years. Is this normal or could there be a misdiagnosis?? This was the only outbreak I've ever had which is confusing to me to only gave one in 5 years; this was diagnose by a midwife through a culture.
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