Healthy male, 46, no other conditions or medications. In a monogamous reltationship with a non-infected female partner. I contracted Genital Herpes over 20 years ago. Outbreaks are now a rare occurence with perhaps one every 1-2 years. I haven't had one in over two years. The last outbreaks I can recall were extremely mild, resulting in a single small area of itching and perhaps one small sore that never really broke open. With no sores or irritated skin between these infrequent outbreaks, am I still at risk for infecting my (female) partner with unprotected sex? Thanks.
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Q: I contracted Genital Herpes over 20 years ago. Do I still pose a risk between outbreaks?
Answers (2)
1/ 7/11 5:30pm
Yes, it's called aymptomatic herpes-- you shed but have no visible signs. I was infected by someone like you-- he didn't tell me because he thought the same and lied about it when I asked him if had any STDs. You always have the virus. If you take valtrex or acyclovir and use a condom, there's a 20% chance you can infect a partner. Asymptomatic persons are infectuous up to 10% of the year without any signs. Google New York Times, herpes column. It talks about this.
1/ 8/11 12:34pm
Thank you for sharing this with me. I've been honest with my partner about my condition from the start and either abstained or used condoms whenever I felt anything close to the start of an outbreak. She remains free of the virus but, this information on viral shedding is "shedding" some new light on my practices up to this point. I will discuss it with her and a doctor. Thanks again.
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By tb— Last Modified: 05/27/11, First Published: 01/05/11
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