My boyfriend and I have been together for 3 years. He has HSV-1 and occasionally gets cold sores around his mouth, but does not have genital herpes, and I have never experienced either. I have an IUD, and so for three years, we have had intercourse and oral sex (when he does not have a cold sore of course) without using a condom.
5 days ago we had sex for the first time in over 6 weeks. Within 24-48 hours I started experiencing extreme pain and burning around the opening of my vagina, and eventually sores, which to my shock and dismay has been diagnosed as genital herpes.
My question is, what are the chances that I have been exposed to the virus through oral sex with my boyfriend in the past, and I am just now having my first onset attack (24 hours after sex with him)...? Or, is it almost definitely the case that he contracted the HSV-2 virus recently and gave it to me that night?
My doctor has not been helpful and seems unwilling to give me her professional opinion, which is all I am looking for since I don't know anything about this virus and can't find the answers I am looking for online. I am desperate for an objective answer from a knowledgable person before I jump to conclusions and end a three year relationship with my boyfriend by assuming he cheated on me and just gave me the virus last week.
Is it possible he gave it to me before and this is just now happening? Or did he more likely just get the virus in the past few months and give it to me?
Please help...thank you for your opinions.




