• chicagopizzafan chicagopizzafan
    October 27, 2009
    Transmission female to male? No symptoms for 16 yrs?
    chicagopizzafan chicagopizzafan
    October 27, 2009

    I am a female diagnosed with genital herpes 16 yrs ago when I was engaged to my husband. Neither of us had cheated and were shocked I contracted it. My doctor at the time thought maybe we passed it through oral sex and that it was probably HSV1. I have never had another outbreak in 16 yrs of marriage and my husband never had any symptoms. We are now separated and I would like to start dating again. Aren't my chances of passing this to a new partner rather low? I've read stats online that say transmission of female to male is less likely especially if you've had no symptoms for an extended time. If I were to have unprotected sex (I've heard condoms don't necessarily protect anyway) just once with someone, how dangerous could this be? I've also read that a large part of the population has already been exposed to HSV1 and is probably immune already. And the transmission from female to male is supposedly only 4% probability if no sores are present in a study over one year (I was not clear if this means over a one year relationship of unprotected sex, or one year later that symptoms might appear after first sexual encounter?) Please advise, I do not want to ask my doctor this because he does not know I ever had herpes. Thank you!

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  • marlalovestoshop October 27, 2009
    marlalovestoshop
    October 27, 2009

    Well most people already have herpes one if they ever had a cold sore on their lip, so he probally already has that one and if it has been years I would say go for it.  2 is the bad one not one.

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