Can a HPV strand that causes cervical changes and doesn't produce warts in a female (that are noticeable) be passed to the male and cause genital warts in him?
I was diagnosed with HPV approximately a year ago. My doctor informed me that I was not considered a low risk strand, but not at highest risk. There were obvious cervical cell changes. When I was diagnosed, I was single and fresh out of a divorce from a nine-year marriage. I am currently in a serious relationship. He is aware that I have HPV. We have been having unprotected sex for about five months. He has noticed an apparent genital wart outbreak. My question is could a non-wart high risk strand be passed to my partner and cause him to produce warts after catching HPV? Or is it possible he had got HPV from sexual partner before me, which he stated is a possibility. Please help get closure for us.
Hi there -
Sorry it's taken so long for someone to answer your question!
According to this website, it is possible for the HPV virus to be spread to your partner and cause an outbreak even if you do not have the warts yourself. And there can be long periods of dormancy between visible outbreaks, so it's also possible that your partner contracted the virus from a previous sexual partner and is only now having an outbreak of the warts himself. I also found many sites that cautioned people about accusing partners of infidelity because of this latter fact.
I'm only a layperson though, so you should contact a doctor if you want a more definitive answer!
Here are some links that might be useful to you - best of luck to you both!
Stress and Your Sex Life
Sex in Summertime
Vagina Lumps and Bumps: What Are They?